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KJV-Onlyism Page Is the following another gospel?
I do not want anybody to think that I do not like the King James Version. I like it, and love to read it. It is the word of God, and many other good translations are also the word of God. But the thing that constrains me to respond, is the very harsh and vehement attacks made against fellow believers who believe differently on how we got the Bible, and what is the inspired word of God, etc. I grant that King James Only people have a zeal to "contend for the faith once delivered to the saints." But my wish for them, in the name of Jesus, is that their zeal be a "zeal according to knowledge." I hope that this page will be effective toward more unity among us. Wouldn't it be great if we stopped attacking each other, and attacked our mutual spiritual enemy instead? 1 John 4:7-8 "Beloved, let us love one another. For love is of God, and every one that loveth is born of God, and knoweth God. He that loveth not, knoweth not God, for God is love." |
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First, here is a King James Only position that I respect. It is a statement on a web page of a Christian book seller. << The great 19th century preacher, C. H. Spurgeon, said: "If the Book be not infallible, where shall we find infallibility? We have given up the Pope, for he has blundered often and terribly; but we shall not set up instead of him a horde of popelings fresh from college. Are these correctors of Scriptures infallible? Is it certain that our Bibles are not right, but that the critics must be so? Now, Farmer Smith, when you have read your Bible, and have enjoyed its precious promises, you will have tomorrow morning, to go down the street to ask the scholarly man at the parsonage whether this portion of the Scripture belongs to the inspired part of the Word or whether it is of dubious authority....We shall gradually be so bedoubted and be criticized that only a few of the most profound will know what is Bible and what is not, and they will dictate to the rest of us. I have no more faith in their mercy than in their accuracy... and we are fully assured that our old English version of the Scriptures is sufficient for plain men for all purposes of life, salvation, and goodness." [emphasis mine] We believe that God has preserved His word perfectly down through the ages (Psalm 12:6-7) so that Christians today can have access to the same word of God that the first century church had. God is no respecter of persons, and He would not leave His people in a situation where they could not completely obey His word because "we don't have the 'original' manuscripts." How can a Christian obey God's word if he's not sure if the Bible he has can be trusted 100%? If there is no perfect, infallible word of God available today, then God has asked His children to do the impossible. In Matthew 4:4, Jesus said to the Devil, "Man shall not live by bread alone, but by EVERY WORD that proceedeth out of the mouth of God." If there is no perfect Bible available today, then God is asking Christians to do something that they cannot do--obey EVERY WORD. (See also Luke 4:4 and Deut. 8:3.) >> My Response: Secondly, the verse quoted, saying "every word"
does not strictly mean every "word." The Greek word is ῥήμα - hreema: "upon every ῥήμα
- hreema that proceeds from the mouth of God." (Look at Deuteronomy 8:3
in the KJV, and you see that "word" is in italics.) In Hebraistic
Greek, ῥήμα was used not only for words
or statements, but when combined with the Greek word πᾶν
- "pan" as in this verse, it can mean "every matter" or "every thing."
Look at how some translations rendered Deuteronomy 8:3 as "everything
that comes from the mouth of God." (ASV, JPS, Spanish Reina
Valera,
YLT, Darby, NASB) And the KJV in Deuteronomy 8:3 has the word "word" in
italics, showing you that there is not a Hebrew word for "word" there.
The Hebrew does not exactly say "every word" as the above person is
understanding it; it just says something like "what proceeds from the
mouth of God." So the point is, that scripture does not mean, "every
exact syllable or every exact word" necessarily. It certainly means,
"every statement" and "every teaching." And the fact that believers
during Jesus' day accepted the statements of God worded so many
different ways in their 4 versions of the Bible shows that they did not
view Deuteronomy 8:3 the way the above person did. A worhty excerpt Of Probally the First Translator
of the scriptures from Hebrew, and Chaldean To Greek. Keep this
in mind. Josephus THE ANTIQUITIES OF THE JEWS PREFACE
{Footnote - *} 4...that he who would conduct his own life well,
and give laws (or bible translations) to others, in the first place
should consider the Divine nature; and, upon the contemplation of God's
operations, should thereby imitate the best of all patterns, so far as
it is possible for human nature to do, and to endeavor to follow after
it: neither could the legislator (Or translator) himself have a
right mind without such a contemplation; nor would any thing he should
write tend to the promotion of virtue in his readers; I mean, unless
they be taught first of all, that God
is the Father and Lord of all things, and sees all things, and that
thence he bestows a happy life upon those that follow him; but
plunges such as do not walk in the paths of virtue into inevitable
miseries. Now when Moses (or
translator (Like Wycliff, Tydale) was desirous to teach this lesson to
his countrymen, he did not begin the establishment of his laws
after the same manner that other legislators did; I mean, upon
contracts and other rights between one man and another, but by raising
their minds upwards to regard God By the way, here is what John R. Rice says on the issue: "The doctrine of infallibility in the King James is not a Bible doctrine; it is a manmade scheme by some partly ignorant and some partly influenced by bad motives.” John R. Rice - The Sword of the Lord March 30, 1979 issue. Fact: The Septuagint (the translation of at least the five books of Moses into Greek, done a couple hundred years before Christ) was significantly different from the Hebrew, yet the true believers among God's people considered BOTH of them to be the very oracles of God. By the above King James Only reasoning, then, only one of them could have been the "perfect" word of God. But that was not the belief of Christ and the apostles. Thus, King James Onlyism is a new doctrine, and a man-made doctrine, and a false doctrine. Fact: The New Testament writers quoted the Septuagint quite often. They considered it the Bible, the Word of God. Peter Ruckman and other extreme King James Onlyists spread the myth that the Septuagint did not exist until well after the time of Christ. That is simply false. The Jewish historian Josephus says that there was such a Greek translation of the five Books of Moses, at least that much, in the time of Christ, plus surely also the Psalms. Other books of the Bible were added later by various parties, but a good argument can be made that the Septuagint was done at least as early as some of the Dead Sea Scrolls, because they often agree with the Septuagint against the Masoretic Text. For
the Jewish historian Josephus’ detailed description of events
surrounding the original authorship of the Septuagint, see Josephus,
Antiquities of the Jews, XII, ii, 1-4.<Which is reproduced for your
reading Pleasure Here.> HOW PTOLEMY PHILADELPHUS PROCURED THE LAWS OF THE
JEWS TO BE TRANSLATED INTO THE GREEK TONGUE AND SET MANY CAPTIVES FREE,
AND DEDICATED MANY GIFTS TO GOD. The
fact is that the Septuagint was the one of the main Bible for believers
worldwide then, both Jews and Christians. Relatively few people could
read the Hebrew scriptures.
Psalm 12:6,7 says God will preserve his words forever. That means they can't keep changing. My AV1611 is the final authority. My Response: Secondly, and the main point
is, that this verse is not referring to the words of God, but to the
people of God. Psalm 12:7 "You will keep them, O Jehovah, You will
preserve them from this generation for ever." This is one of the main proof texts for KJV Onlyism, and they don't even know what it is saying or means. They deny what the AV1611 itself says it means. This is a prime example of the ignorance, and carnal pride of KJV Onlyists, that they will not be corrected even by the translators of the AV1611! They truly are their own final authority, and the AV1611 is certainly not their final authority. As
for "Final Authority," it has to boil down to this: each person
determines what translation or scholar or authority is true and
reliable and final for themselves. Some might profess that they are
letting a certain set of scholars determine it for them, but that is
still YOU YOURSELF determining which scholars are reliable.
An
email from a reader My
response: Assertion: The KJV is the only English translation authorized by God and inspired by God. Response: The translators of the KJV themselves, in their original preface to the KJV, entitled "The Translators to the Reader," recently re-published by Thomas Nelson & Co., have this to say: "We do
not deny, nay we affirm and avow, that the very meanest translation of
the Bible in English...containeth the word of God, nay, is the word of
God. As the King's speech, which he uttereth in Parliament, being
translated into French, Dutch, Italian, and Latin, is still the King's
speech, though it be not interpreted by every Translator with the like
grace, nor peradventure so fitly for phrase, nor so expressly for
sense, everywhere. " Neither did they believe that their translation work was perfect. They said, "A man may be counted a virtuous man, though he have made many slips in his life, (else, there were none virtuous, for in many things we offend all) [James 3:2] also a comely man and lovely, though he have some warts upon his hand, yea, not only freckles upon his face, but also scars. No cause therefore why the word translated should be denied to be the word, or forbidden to be current, notwithstanding that some imperfections and blemishes may be noted in the setting forth of it. For whatever was perfect under the Sun, where Apostles or Apostolic men, that is, men endued with an extraordinary measure of God's spirit, and privileged with the privilege of infallibility, had not their hand?" They clearly stated that neither was their work perfect, nor did they as men have the privilege of infallibility. They were in a position to know this, since they knew each other, and they knew what was involved in Bible translation. Therefore this belief that the KJV translators' work was perfect, and that they were infallible, is a false belief. Concerning the issue of whether there are other valid ways to translate Greek words than the way they themselves did it, they had this to say: "Some peradventure would have no variety of senses to be set in the margin, lest the authority of the Scriptures for deciding of controversies by that show of uncertainty, should somewhat be shaken. But we hold their judgment not to be sound in this point. For though, "whatsoever things are necessary are manifest," as S. Chrysostom saith, [S. Chrysost. in II. Thess. cap. 2.] and as S. Augustine, "In those things that are plainly set down in the Scriptures, all such matters are found that concern Faith, Hope, and Charity." [S. Aug. 2. de doctr. Christ. cap. 9.] Yet for all that it cannot be dissembled, that partly to exercise and whet our wits, partly to wean the curious from the loathing of them for their every-where plainness, partly also to stir up our devotion to crave the assistance of God's spirit by prayer, and lastly, that we might be forward to seek aid of our brethren by conference, and never scorn those that be not in all respects so complete as they should be, being to seek in many things ourselves, it hath pleased God in his divine providence, here and there to scatter words and sentences of that difficulty and doubtfulness, not in doctrinal points that concern salvation, (for in such it hath been vouched that the Scriptures are plain) but in matters of less moment, that fearfulness would better beseem us than confidence, and if we will resolve upon modesty with S. Augustine, (though not in this same case altogether, yet upon the same ground) Melius est debitare de occultis, quam litigare de incertis, [S. Aug li. S. de Genes. ad liter. cap. 5.] "it is better to make doubt of those things which are secret, than to strive about those things that are uncertain." There be many words in the Scriptures, which be never found there but once, (having neither brother or neighbor, as the Hebrews speak) so that we cannot be holpen by conference of places. Again, there be many rare names of certain birds, beasts and precious stones, etc. concerning the Hebrews themselves are so divided among themselves for judgment, that they may seem to have defined this or that, rather because they would say something, than because they were sure of that which they said, as S. Jerome somewhere saith of the Septuagint. Now in such a case, doth not a margin do well to admonish the Reader to seek further, and not to conclude or dogmatize upon this or that peremptorily? For as it is a fault of incredulity, to doubt of those things that are evident: so to determine of such things as the Spirit of God hath left (even in the judgment of the judicious) questionable, can be no less than presumption. Therefore as S. Augustine saith, that variety of Translations is profitable for the finding out of the sense of the Scriptures: [S. Aug. 2. de doctr. Christian. cap. 14.] so diversity of signification and sense in the margin, where the text is no so clear, must needs do good, yea, is necessary, as we are persuaded." Amen! A variety of translations is profitable for finding out the sense of the Scriptures. Amen. And it looks to me like they believed it was possible for themselves as translators to have made a mistake. And as they said elsewhere: "For is the kingdome of God become words or syllables?" I urge us all to emulate the humility and reasonableness of the translators of the KJV. You
can actually view one of the original KJV's marginal notes, on the web.
It is a marginal note indicating that they included the verse Luke
17:36, even though they admit in the margin that most of the Greek
manuscripts did not have it. To see that, click here,
then click the Back arrow at the upper left of your screen.
This is one of the most amazing of all the KJV Onlyist beliefs, because the truth is so completely the opposite. For example, the most influential scholar producing the Greek text edition from which the King James Version was translated, was a Roman Catholic, Erasmus. Then you have the fact that there are passages in the King James Version that come from the Latin Vulgate, and not the Greek texts. It can also easily be shown that the King James Version uses "high church" political terminology, that these very King James Onlyists would normally object to, since many King James Onlyists are Baptists and other groups that protested the "high church" denominations. An example of KJV high church terminology is the word "bishop." The King James Onlyists sound exactly like Roman Catholics a lot of the time. I will give an example, a quotation from a web site written by a Roman Catholic apologist, instructing Roman Catholics on how to talk to "Bible Christians." It lays down ground rules, and Rule Number One is: << Ground Rules 1. Before discussing the Bible with them, tell them that the King James version is the only acceptable Protestant version of the Bible. Normally they will not object to this, unless they are incredibly unlearned. Insisting on the King James version merely makes you seem a little fundamentalist. This version has a more correct translation than other Protestant versions. If they insist on using their version, have them compare I John 5:7 in their version with the same verse in the King James version. The comparison should convince them. If not, they are probably those whom St. Peter calls "willfully ignorant (II Peter 3:5)." They probably will not listen to anything you have to say. >> The main reason this Roman Catholic prefers the KJV is that it contains Roman Catholic words like "bishop." << correct translation is "bishop." However, you find episkopous translated correctly in I Timothy 3:1>> By the way, for a discussion of the textial variant in 1 John 5:7, read this PDF. http://www.icubed.com/~rpoe/ini.htm by Robin C. Poe Assertion: The Alexandrian text type was tampered with by Origen and others, to put Gnostic and other heresies into the scriptures. My
response: Show me one instance of a heresy present in the
Alexandrian text type. This is how I respond to those who make
this assertion, and none of them can give me an
example. Conclusion: Such KJV onlyists are deceivers
by unknowing or design. They are lying about and slandering the
current editions of the Greek New Testament, and the lifelong work of
many godly Christian scholars and Bible lovers. In short, Anyone
who holds their bible as the only literanl inerant word of god could be
guilty of the sins of : (1) hate for their brother; (2) lying (3)
slander (4) railing (5) pride and unteachableness, and (6) the yeast of
the Pharisees. These kind of statements have a show of wisdom but it is
likely wisdom that comes from below, an earthly, devilish wisdom. One web site said: Concerning how to tell if you have the Authorized King James Version, [1] if it doesn't say Authorized (a word that liberal "Christians" don't like. I'm not surprised they took it off the title page) it should at least [2] say conformable to the edition of 1611. As a third check you can [3] take selected AKJV scriptures and compare them with your Bibles. I'd take some verses with ye's and thee's to compare. Even if it has the ye's, I'd look at 2 Timothy 3:17 to make sure they didn't change "throughly" to "thoroughly". Response: The word "authorized" there means that it was the official version authorized for the Church of England, by the head of the Church of England. The British monarch is the head of the Church of England. Now that King James, the then head of the Church of England, is dead, should the current head of that church, Queen Elizabeth, be the one to decide which version is authorized? Or, since Christian pilgrims came here to America in order to escape the Church of England, should it be Bill Clinton who authorizes Bible translations for us? Assertion: The King James Version has never been revised since 1611. My
Response: So yes, the King James Version has been revised. There have been several revisions, in 1629, 1638, 1653, 1701, 1762, 1769, and two more, the last three by Dr. Blayney of Oxford. These varied in many details, making changes, for example, in orthography and spelling. The orthography of a language is the letters and symbols used to represent the sounds. The KJV that people read today is a revision made in the 1800's. If you found a copy actually printed in 1611, you would have to slog through some strange symbols. For example, the "s" sound was represented by "f." There have been many, many spelling changes since 1611; for example, musick to music; olde to old, etc. The letter "u" in 1611 was "v", and the letter "v" was "u." See the section on this site responding to the assertion that the KJV is the only English version authorized and inspired by God. There you will find actual quotes from the KJV translators that show old spellings of English words. And, click here to see a photograph of the first page of Luke chapter 10 from an original King James Version. It seems unreasonable to say that the updates of the English done to the KJV up to 1881 are good and inspired by God, but to revise the English subsequent to 1881, is "heresy" or "a work of Satan" or "new age." Here is a link to a web page that lists and details some differences between the 1611 edition of the KJV as compared to the 1769 Blayney revision. These differences are not merely spelling and orthography; they are differences in words that change the meaning of the verses. The fact is, also, that the King James Version itself was only a revision. It was a revision of the Bishop's Bible. At the time, the most popular version of the Bible among lay fundamentalists was the Geneva Bible. The Geneva Bible irritated both the clergy of the Roman Catholic church and of Church of England, and King James I of England, alike. The Bishop's Bible had been made in reaction to the popularity of the Geneva Bible among Protestant dissidents. When King James I commissioned the Authorized King James Version, these instructions were issued: that they should follow the text of the Bishop's Bible unless they found that the translations of Tyndale, Matthew (John Rogers), Whitchurche, and Geneva more closely agreed with the original text. And that original Greek text edition that the KJV translators consulted, was taken and edited from only a few if any of the best available texts of the 12th to 15th centuries, since it followed the 1516 and 1522 editions of Erasmus' Greek text. Since the KJV used the Bishop's Bible as its main base, that means it kept many old ecclesiastical words from the Catholic tradition, and many Latinisms, or Latin idioms translated into English. God
has raised up servants of his who have continued to update the English
Bible. Noah Webster did a revision of the KJV. Then in England the
Revised Version was a revision of the King James Version, and the
American Standard Version was the revision of the KJV in America. Then
came the Revised Standard Version and the New American Standard Bible.
If you wanted a good translation that is accepted by many people of God
in many camps, it would be the Revised Standard Version. A few
conservatives may quibble about a couple words in it here and there,
but I could show them more words in the New International Version than
in the RSV, that would be more worth the quibbling.( when writting term
papers for college it might be worth using) And God's servants who have
produced these benefits of modern translations for us have certainly
suffered persecution for doing so; and unfortunately the persecution
comes from people who profess to be followers of Jesus Christ. Statement: The MOTIVE of those who point out problems with the King James Version, is to destroy people's faith in the Bible. Instead of being Bible-correctors, people should be Bible obeyers. Response: The translators of the King James Version were themselves "Bible correctors." When they did their translation, there were already a half dozen translations of the Bible into English. So, they "changed the Bible." Now why would they make another translation of the Bible into English, unless they thought there was need to correct and improve? One of the reasons they stated, for their doing a new translation, was to make the Bible "more current." Those modernists! :) I assume they meant to update the English, and to take advantage of new knowledge in textual criticism. Yes, the KJV translators were also textual critics. That means, they involved themselves in picking and choosing which text had the reading closest to the original, in any particular passage. That means they had to involve themselves in picking and choosing which texts to follow. Sometimes they chose a reading that differed from the "Textus Receptus." One of the primary false beliefs such KJV-only people have, is that God has chosen the King James Version as the only translation authorized in the English language, and therefore contains no translation mistakes, and also must be based on the best possible Greek manuscripts. As a result, they take a criticism of THAT ONE TRANSLATION as an attack on God, and on his word, as if the King James Version were God's word itself. Jesus Christ is the Word, and he is not paper and ink. He never changes, and never errs. When has God ever told us that he chose the King James Version over all other translations into English, and that this one translation contains no human errors? They state this as if it were gospel truth. But, it is a great evil to say, "Thus saith the Lord," when the Lord did not say it. In the Old Testament, if a prophet said "Thus says the Lord," and it turned out the Lord had not said it, he was to be stoned to death. Yet, these people turn it around, and say to anyone who challenges this false belief, "You are another serpent, who is saying, 'Hath God really said?'" Brothers and sisters, we are to test every spirit, to see whether it is of God. Test this belief that the King James Version is the only translation into English approved by God, and you must find it false. You can like it best, and read it of course. But do not dare declare as if speaking for God, that it is the only one approved by God. Yes, I know, they will say that it says in Psalms, "Thy word is perfect." Amen. Note that it does not say, "The King James Version is perfect." But you see, because of their false circular reasoning, you run into their brick wall false belief, that the King James Version IS the only Word of God. So therefore they believe this verse means, "The King James Version is perfect." Well, if a person weak in the faith, or a new convert is saying this, it is not wise perhaps to argue with them. But Christian leaders and pastors should know better, and not be spreading this falsehood.
Assertion: The AV (Authorized Version or King James Version) is our final authority. My Response: The
scripture says, "As many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the
sons of God..." Romans 8:14 His rebuttal: << 1. HOW is God our authority? Is it by direct revelation? Signs in the sky? Inner voice? How do we appeal to God as our final authority? For example when there is a heated debate as to which version to believe, how does our final authority (God) tell us? How does He answer us? >> You are a missionary, and you don't know these things? The wind blows where it wills. You hear its sound, but you cannot tell where it is coming from, or where it is going. Such is everyone born of the Spirit. Only you can learn this, in your own personal walk with God. << 2. All religions, pagan religions included, have God as their final authority. What's the difference? Don't followers of Islam have God as their final authority? >> The difference is, Christians are "led by the Spirit of God." That is the point here. Are you saying Muslims worship the true God? Are they led by the Spirit of the true God? Muslims are also "people of the book." But are they led by the Spirit? Jesus told the Pharisees, "You diligently search the scriptures, because you think that in them you have eternal life. And these are scriptures that point to Me." Scriptures point to Jesus, the living Word. He is the word. << 3. I thought the SCRIPTURES were the final authority in all matters of FAITH AND PRACTICE? >> You did? I thought you maintain that the AV is the final authority in all matters of FAITH AND PRACTICE. The Holy Spirit is our final authority. If not, all we have is opinions, your opinion, my opinion. Jesus spoke with noticeable authority. He quoted the same scriptures that the Pharisees quoted. What was the difference between Jesus quoting the scriptures, and the Pharisees quoting the scriptures? The Holy Spirit was the difference. << Is it really your intent to appeal to things that God "uses" for authority in matters of faith and practice? God can and does use any version. He is not limited by our stupidity. He can USE a drunk to put the fear of God in a cellmate (in jail). He can USE a donkey to rebuke a prophet and a lying spirit to guide a deluded king( balam and balak). This is not to say we should appeal to drunks, donkey's and lying spirits for guidance in matters of faith and practice. This debate is not about what God can and cannot use. It is about which English Bible is our final authority in matters of faith and practice. >> We
should look to God and appeal to be the taught by Holy Ghost/Spirit.. However
The Holy Ghost or Spirit is NOT given to every church goer. The KJV from my research, does have more going for it than basically any Newer English Translation. However
there were former translations into English. The first whole bible
being the Wycliff then the Tydale, then the Geneva, then the KJV. 2
Timothy 2 23-26 KJV |
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